🧮 Brain Teaser

Poisson's Log-Cosine Integral

Let aa be a real number with ∣a∣≠1|a| \neq 1. Evaluate

I(a)  =  ∫0πln⁡ ⁣(1−2acos⁡x+a2) dx.I(a) \;=\; \int_0^{\pi} \ln\!\left(1 - 2a\cos x + a^2\right)\,dx .

Your answer should depend on whether ∣a∣<1|a|<1 or ∣a∣>1|a|>1.

Hint (try without it first): Factor 1−2acos⁡x+a21 - 2a\cos x + a^2 over C\mathbb{C}.

Bonus: What happens at a=1a = 1, where the integrand has a logarithmic singularity at x=0x=0?


Field: Integration / Complex analysis

Why it's interesting: Direct antidifferentiation gets nowhere. After one factorization, the integral turns out to be "secretly" an average of a harmonic function over a circle. The answer is then a striking dichotomy: exactly 00 inside the unit disk and 2πln⁡∣a∣2\pi\ln|a| outside it. It is the prototype of Jensen's formula. It also has a completely elementary second proof using roots of unity and Riemann sums.

Difficulty: 3 / 5

mean value propertyroots of unityRiemann sumsJensen's formulaharmonic functions

Answer: Poisson's Log-Cosine Integral

Key Idea / Intuition

The expression 1−2acos⁡x+a21 - 2a\cos x + a^2 is the squared distance from aa to the point eixe^{ix} on the unit circle:

1−2acos⁡x+a2=∣1−aeix∣2=∣a−eix∣2.1 - 2a\cos x + a^2 = |1 - a e^{ix}|^2 = |a - e^{ix}|^2 .

So the integral is (up to constants) the average of ln⁡∣1−az∣\ln|1 - az| over the unit circle.

  • If ∣a∣<1|a|<1, the function ln⁡∣1−az∣\ln|1-az| is harmonic on the whole closed disk. Its circle-average therefore equals its value at the center, which is ln⁡1=0\ln 1 = 0.
  • If ∣a∣>1|a|>1, factor out aa to reduce to the case 1/a1/a, which lies inside the disk.

The elementary version of the same idea: discretize the circle at the nn-th roots of unity. The product ∏k(1−aωk)\prod_k (1 - a\omega^k) collapses to 1−an1 - a^n.

Answer:

I(a)={0,∣a∣<1,2πln⁡∣a∣,∣a∣>1.I(a)=\begin{cases} 0, & |a|<1,\\[2pt] 2\pi\ln|a|, & |a|>1.\end{cases}

Formal Proof / Solution

Step 0: Reduce to a full period. The integrand is even in xx and 2π2\pi-periodic. Hence

I(a)=12∫02πln⁡ ⁣(1−2acos⁡x+a2)dx=12∫02πln⁡∣1−aeix∣2 dx=∫02πln⁡∣1−aeix∣ dx.I(a) = \tfrac12\int_0^{2\pi} \ln\!\left(1 - 2a\cos x + a^2\right)dx = \tfrac12\int_0^{2\pi}\ln|1-ae^{ix}|^2\,dx = \int_0^{2\pi}\ln|1-ae^{ix}|\,dx .

Proof 1: Mean value property

Step 1: The case ∣a∣<1|a|<1. Consider f(z)=log⁡(1−az)f(z) = \log(1-az), using the principal branch. For ∣z∣≤1|z|\le 1 we have Re⁡(1−az)≥1−∣a∣>0\operatorname{Re}(1-az) \ge 1-|a| > 0, so ff is holomorphic on a neighbourhood of the closed unit disk. Then u(z)=Re⁡f(z)=ln⁡∣1−az∣u(z) = \operatorname{Re} f(z) = \ln|1-az| is harmonic there.

By the mean value property,

12π∫02πln⁡∣1−aeix∣ dx=u(0)=ln⁡1=0.\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi} \ln|1 - a e^{ix}|\,dx = u(0) = \ln 1 = 0 .

You can also see this concretely through the power series:

ln⁡∣1−aeix∣=Re⁡(−∑n≥1aneinxn).\ln|1-ae^{ix}| = \operatorname{Re}\Big(-\sum_{n\ge1}\frac{a^n e^{inx}}{n}\Big).

The series converges uniformly in xx because ∣a∣<1|a|<1, and every term integrates to 00 over a period. Hence I(a)=0I(a)=0.

Step 2: The case ∣a∣>1|a|>1. Factor out a2a^2:

1−2acos⁡x+a2=a2(1−2acos⁡x+1a2).1 - 2a\cos x + a^2 = a^2\Big(1 - \tfrac{2}{a}\cos x + \tfrac{1}{a^2}\Big).

Therefore

I(a)=∫0πln⁡a2 dx+I(1/a)=2πln⁡∣a∣+0=2πln⁡∣a∣,I(a) = \int_0^\pi \ln a^2\,dx + I(1/a) = 2\pi\ln|a| + 0 = 2\pi\ln|a|,

since ∣1/a∣<1|1/a|<1.

Proof 2: Riemann sums and roots of unity (fully elementary)

Let ω=e2πi/n\omega = e^{2\pi i/n}. The integrand ln⁡∣1−aeix∣2\ln|1-ae^{ix}|^2 is continuous because ∣a∣≠1|a|\neq1. So the full-period integral is the limit of Riemann sums at the points xk=2πk/nx_k = 2\pi k/n:

2I(a)=lim⁡n→∞2πn∑k=0n−1ln⁡∣1−aωk∣2=lim⁡n→∞4πnln⁡∣∏k=0n−1(1−aωk)∣.2I(a) = \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{2\pi}{n}\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\ln|1-a\omega^k|^2 = \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{4\pi}{n}\ln\Big|\prod_{k=0}^{n-1}(1-a\omega^k)\Big| .

Since ∏k=0n−1(z−ωk)=zn−1\prod_{k=0}^{n-1}(z-\omega^k) = z^n - 1, substituting z=1/az = 1/a and multiplying by ana^n gives

∏k=0n−1(1−aωk)=1−an.\prod_{k=0}^{n-1}(1-a\omega^k) = 1 - a^n .

So

2I(a)=lim⁡n→∞4πnln⁡∣1−an∣.2I(a) = \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{4\pi}{n}\ln|1-a^n| .
  • If ∣a∣<1|a|<1: ln⁡∣1−an∣→0\ln|1-a^n|\to 0, so I(a)=0I(a) = 0.
  • If ∣a∣>1|a|>1: write ln⁡∣1−an∣=nln⁡∣a∣+ln⁡∣1−a−n∣\ln|1-a^n| = n\ln|a| + \ln|1-a^{-n}|. The second term tends to 00, so 2I(a)=4πln⁡∣a∣2I(a) = 4\pi\ln|a|, i.e. I(a)=2πln⁡∣a∣I(a) = 2\pi\ln|a|.

Bonus: a=1a = 1

Here 1−2cos⁡x+1=4sin⁡2(x/2)1 - 2\cos x + 1 = 4\sin^2(x/2), so

I(1)=πln⁡4+2∫0πln⁡sin⁡x2 dx=2πln⁡2+4∫0π/2ln⁡sin⁡u du=2πln⁡2+4(−π2ln⁡2)=0.I(1) = \pi\ln 4 + 2\int_0^\pi \ln\sin\tfrac{x}{2}\,dx = 2\pi\ln 2 + 4\int_0^{\pi/2}\ln\sin u\,du = 2\pi\ln 2 + 4\Big(-\tfrac{\pi}{2}\ln 2\Big) = 0 .

This is consistent with both formulas, since 2πln⁡1=02\pi\ln 1 = 0. The function a↦I(a)a\mapsto I(a) is continuous across the unit circle, but it has a "kink" there. This is exactly the behaviour of 2πln⁡+∣a∣2\pi\ln^+|a|, the simplest instance of Jensen's formula.

Source: Classical (Poisson's integral); folklore integration-bee staple

Type: IntegrationSource: Classical (Poisson's integral); folklore integration-bee stapleEdit on GitHub ↗