๐Ÿงฎ Brain Teaser

The Quartic That Folds onto Itself

Evaluate

Iโ€…โ€Š=โ€…โ€Šโˆซ0โˆždx1+x4.I \;=\; \int_0^{\infty} \frac{dx}{1+x^4}.

You may not use residues or the Beta function. Find a substitution argument that fits in a few lines.

Bonus: Use the same idea to evaluate

โˆซ0โˆžx2+1x4+x2+1โ€‰dx.\int_0^{\infty} \frac{x^2+1}{x^4+x^2+1}\,dx .

Field: Integration (real-variable substitution tricks)

Why it's interesting: Partial fractions over R\mathbb{R} work here, but they are messy: 1+x4=(x2+2x+1)(x2โˆ’2x+1)1+x^4=(x^2+\sqrt2x+1)(x^2-\sqrt2x+1), followed by logs and arctangents. The elegant route uses two ideas. The inversion xโ†ฆ1/xx\mapsto 1/x produces a "partner" integral equal to II. Adding the two creates an integrand that becomes a single arctangent after the substitution u=xโˆ’1xu=x-\tfrac1x. This "divide by x2x^2 and use xโˆ“1/xx\mp 1/x" trick is a classic of integration bees.

Difficulty: 2 / 5

Tags: substitution, inversion symmetry, reciprocal substitution, integration bee

substitutioninversion symmetryx - 1/x trickintegration bee

Answer: The Quartic That Folds onto Itself

Key Idea / Intuition

The map xโ†ฆ1/xx\mapsto 1/x swaps (0,1)(0,1) and (1,โˆž)(1,\infty). Under it, 11+x4\frac{1}{1+x^4} turns into its "twin" x21+x4\frac{x^2}{1+x^4}, so both integrals are equal. Averaging them gives the more symmetric integrand 1+x21+x4\frac{1+x^2}{1+x^4}. Dividing numerator and denominator by x2x^2 makes it a function of u=xโˆ’1xu=x-\frac1x times exactly dudu. The quartic denominator then collapses to the quadratic u2+2u^2+2.


Formal Proof / Solution

Step 1: The inversion twin. Substitute x=1/tx=1/t, so dx=โˆ’dt/t2dx=-dt/t^2:

I=โˆซ0โˆždx1+x4=โˆซ0โˆž11+tโˆ’4โ‹…dtt2=โˆซ0โˆžt21+t4โ€‰dt.I=\int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{1+x^4}=\int_0^\infty \frac{1}{1+t^{-4}}\cdot\frac{dt}{t^2} =\int_0^\infty \frac{t^2}{1+t^4}\,dt .

Call this second integral JJ. We have shown I=JI=J.

Step 2: Average the two forms.

2I=I+J=โˆซ0โˆž1+x21+x4โ€‰dx=โˆซ0โˆž1+1x2x2+1x2โ€‰dx,2I = I+J=\int_0^\infty \frac{1+x^2}{1+x^4}\,dx =\int_0^\infty \frac{1+\frac{1}{x^2}}{x^2+\frac{1}{x^2}}\,dx ,

where we divided the numerator and denominator by x2x^2.

Step 3: The substitution u=xโˆ’1xu=x-\frac1x.

  • On (0,โˆž)(0,\infty), uu is strictly increasing and maps (0,โˆž)(0,\infty) bijectively onto (โˆ’โˆž,โˆž)(-\infty,\infty).
  • Its derivative is du=(1+1x2)dxdu=\left(1+\frac1{x^2}\right)dx.
  • The denominator becomes x2+1x2=(xโˆ’1x)2+2=u2+2x^2+\frac1{x^2}=\left(x-\frac1x\right)^2+2=u^2+2.

Hence

2I=โˆซโˆ’โˆžโˆžduu2+2=12[arctanโกu2]โˆ’โˆžโˆž=ฯ€2.2I=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{du}{u^2+2}=\frac{1}{\sqrt2}\Big[\arctan\tfrac{u}{\sqrt2}\Big]_{-\infty}^{\infty}=\frac{\pi}{\sqrt2}. โ€‰I=โˆซ0โˆždx1+x4=ฯ€22โ€‰\boxed{\,I=\int_0^\infty\frac{dx}{1+x^4}=\frac{\pi}{2\sqrt2}\,}

Sanity check: the difference. The same idea with v=x+1xv=x+\frac1x handles Jโˆ’IJ-I:

Jโˆ’I=โˆซ0โˆž1โˆ’1x2x2+1x2โ€‰dx=โˆซdvv2โˆ’2.J-I=\int_0^\infty\frac{1-\frac1{x^2}}{x^2+\frac1{x^2}}\,dx=\int \frac{dv}{v^2-2}.

As xx runs from 00 to โˆž\infty, vv runs from โˆž\infty down to 22 and back up to โˆž\infty. The two halves cancel, so Jโˆ’I=0J-I=0, consistent with Step 1.

Bonus. Divide by x2x^2 again:

โˆซ0โˆžx2+1x4+x2+1โ€‰dx=โˆซ0โˆž1+1x2x2+1+1x2โ€‰dx.\int_0^\infty \frac{x^2+1}{x^4+x^2+1}\,dx=\int_0^\infty\frac{1+\frac1{x^2}}{x^2+1+\frac1{x^2}}\,dx .

With u=xโˆ’1xu=x-\frac1x we get x2+1+1x2=u2+3x^2+1+\frac1{x^2}=u^2+3, so

โˆซโˆ’โˆžโˆžduu2+3=ฯ€3.\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{du}{u^2+3}=\frac{\pi}{\sqrt3}.

Takeaway. For an integrand built from a palindromic (reciprocal-symmetric) polynomial, dividing by the middle power of xx rewrites everything in terms of xยฑ1xx\pm\frac1x. The degree is halved, and the integrand becomes elementary in one stroke.

Type: IntegrationEdit on GitHub โ†—