๐Ÿงฎ Brain Teaser

The Entire Function Bounded on a Line

Let ff be an entire function such that ff is real-valued on the real axis and purely imaginary-valued on the imaginary axis. Show that ff is an odd function, i.e., f(โˆ’z)=โˆ’f(z)f(-z) = -f(z) for all zโˆˆCz \in \mathbb{C}.

entire functionsTaylor seriessymmetrySchwarz reflectionodd functions

Answer: The Entire Function Bounded on a Line

Key Idea / Intuition

The conditions on the real and imaginary axes secretly force f(z)+f(โˆ’z)f(z) + f(-z) to vanish everywhere. Define g(z)=f(z)+f(โˆ’z)g(z) = f(z) + f(-z): this is entire, and the two axis conditions together imply gg vanishes on both coordinate axes. Since the zeros of gg accumulate along these lines, the identity theorem kills gg entirely.


Formal Proof / Solution

Step 1: Set up the auxiliary function.

Define g(z)=f(z)+f(โˆ’z).g(z) = f(z) + f(-z). Since ff is entire, so is gg.

Step 2: Use the real-axis condition.

For xโˆˆRx \in \mathbb{R}, we are told f(x)โˆˆRf(x) \in \mathbb{R}, so f(x)โ€พ=f(x)\overline{f(x)} = f(x). Also โˆ’xโˆˆR-x \in \mathbb{R}, so f(โˆ’x)โˆˆRf(-x) \in \mathbb{R}. Thus g(x)=f(x)+f(โˆ’x)โˆˆR.g(x) = f(x) + f(-x) \in \mathbb{R}.

But wait โ€” we need gg to vanish on the real axis, not just be real. Let us use the imaginary-axis condition first.

Step 3: Use the imaginary-axis condition.

For tโˆˆRt \in \mathbb{R}, let z=itz = it. We are told f(it)f(it) is purely imaginary, so f(it)=iโ€‰c(t)f(it) = i\,c(t) for some c(t)โˆˆRc(t) \in \mathbb{R}. Then โˆ’z=โˆ’it-z = -it, and f(โˆ’it)f(-it) is also purely imaginary (since โˆ’it-it lies on the imaginary axis), say f(โˆ’it)=iโ€‰d(t)f(-it) = i\,d(t). Thus g(it)=f(it)+f(โˆ’it)=i(c(t)+d(t))โˆˆiR.g(it) = f(it) + f(-it) = i\bigl(c(t) + d(t)\bigr) \in i\mathbb{R}.

Step 4: Combine both conditions for gg.

From Step 2: for real xx, g(x)=f(x)+f(โˆ’x)g(x) = f(x) + f(-x) is real.

Now use the Schwarz reflection principle perspective. Because ff takes real values on R\mathbb{R}, the power series of ff centered at 00 has real coefficients. Write f(z)=โˆ‘n=0โˆžanzn,anโˆˆR.f(z) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n z^n, \quad a_n \in \mathbb{R}.

Why real coefficients? The Taylor coefficients satisfy an=f(n)(0)/n!a_n = f^{(n)}(0)/n!. Since all derivatives of ff at 00 are real (by differentiating the condition f(x)โˆˆRf(x)\in\mathbb{R} for xโˆˆRx\in\mathbb{R} and taking the limit xโ†’0x\to 0), we get anโˆˆRa_n \in \mathbb{R}.

Step 5: Apply the imaginary-axis condition to the series.

For z=itz = it with tโˆˆRt \in \mathbb{R}: f(it)=โˆ‘n=0โˆžan(it)n=โˆ‘k=0โˆža2k(โˆ’1)kt2k+iโˆ‘k=0โˆža2k+1(โˆ’1)kt2k+1.f(it) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n (it)^n = \sum_{k=0}^\infty a_{2k}(-1)^k t^{2k} + i \sum_{k=0}^\infty a_{2k+1}(-1)^k t^{2k+1}.

The real part is โˆ‘ka2k(โˆ’1)kt2k\sum_{k} a_{2k}(-1)^k t^{2k} and the imaginary part is โˆ‘ka2k+1(โˆ’1)kt2k+1\sum_{k} a_{2k+1}(-1)^k t^{2k+1}.

Since f(it)f(it) must be purely imaginary for all tโˆˆRt \in \mathbb{R}, the real part must vanish: โˆ‘k=0โˆža2k(โˆ’1)kt2k=0forย allย tโˆˆR.\sum_{k=0}^\infty a_{2k}(-1)^k t^{2k} = 0 \quad \text{for all } t \in \mathbb{R}.

This is a power series in tt that is identically zero, so every coefficient vanishes: a2k=0forย allย kโ‰ฅ0.a_{2k} = 0 \quad \text{for all } k \geq 0.

Step 6: Conclude ff is odd.

Since all even-degree Taylor coefficients vanish, we have f(z)=โˆ‘k=0โˆža2k+1z2k+1,f(z) = \sum_{k=0}^\infty a_{2k+1} z^{2k+1}, which is an odd function. Therefore f(โˆ’z)=โˆ’f(z)forย allย zโˆˆC.โ– f(-z) = -f(z) \quad \text{for all } z \in \mathbb{C}. \qquad \blacksquare


Remark: The two conditions โ€” real on R\mathbb{R}, imaginary on iRi\mathbb{R} โ€” together do exactly the right amount of work: real coefficients from the first, vanishing even coefficients from the second. Each condition alone is not enough.

Source: Mathematical folklore / Complex Analysis problem collections

Type: Complex AnalysisSource: Mathematical folklore / Complex Analysis problem collectionsEdit on GitHub โ†—