๐Ÿงฎ Brain Teaser

The Integral That Oscillates Into Submission

Compute the improper integral

I=โˆซ0โˆžeโˆ’xsinโก(x)โ€‰dxx.I = \int_0^\infty e^{-x} \sin(x)\, \frac{dx}{x}.

Does it converge, and if so, what is its value?

improper integralFeynman trickLaplace transformoscillatory integralparameter differentiation

Answer: The Integral That Oscillates Into Submission

Key Idea / Intuition

The factor 1/x1/x is awkward to integrate directly, but it has a beautiful integral representation: 1x=โˆซ0โˆžeโˆ’xtโ€‰dt\frac{1}{x} = \int_0^\infty e^{-xt}\, dt. Inserting this under the integral sign (Feynman's trick / Laplace transform) converts the problem into computing a family of standard Gaussian-exponential integrals, then integrating the result over a parameter. The answer turns out to be ฯ€4\frac{\pi}{4}, a genuinely surprising outcome from a wildly oscillating integrand.


Formal Proof / Solution

Step 1: Represent 1/x1/x as a Laplace transform.

Use the identity 1x=โˆซ0โˆžeโˆ’xtโ€‰dt,x>0.\frac{1}{x} = \int_0^\infty e^{-xt}\, dt, \quad x > 0.

So I=โˆซ0โˆžeโˆ’xsinโก(x)(โˆซ0โˆžeโˆ’xtโ€‰dt)dx=โˆซ0โˆž(โˆซ0โˆžeโˆ’x(1+t)sinโก(x)โ€‰dx)dt.I = \int_0^\infty e^{-x}\sin(x)\left(\int_0^\infty e^{-xt}\, dt\right) dx = \int_0^\infty \left(\int_0^\infty e^{-x(1+t)}\sin(x)\, dx\right) dt.

(Fubini is justified since the double integral of the absolute value converges.)

Step 2: Evaluate the inner integral.

For fixed t>0t > 0, let a=1+t>1a = 1+t > 1. Then

โˆซ0โˆžeโˆ’axsinโก(x)โ€‰dx=Imโกโˆซ0โˆžeโˆ’axeixโ€‰dx=Imโก1aโˆ’i=Imโกa+ia2+1=1a2+1.\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}\sin(x)\, dx = \operatorname{Im}\int_0^\infty e^{-ax} e^{ix}\, dx = \operatorname{Im}\frac{1}{a - i} = \operatorname{Im}\frac{a+i}{a^2+1} = \frac{1}{a^2+1}.

So the inner integral equals 1(1+t)2+1\dfrac{1}{(1+t)^2 + 1}.

Step 3: Integrate over tt.

I=โˆซ0โˆždt(1+t)2+1.I = \int_0^\infty \frac{dt}{(1+t)^2 + 1}.

Substitute u=1+tu = 1+t, du=dtdu = dt:

I=โˆซ1โˆžduu2+1=[arctanโก(u)]1โˆž=ฯ€2โˆ’ฯ€4=ฯ€4.I = \int_1^\infty \frac{du}{u^2+1} = \left[\arctan(u)\right]_1^\infty = \frac{\pi}{2} - \frac{\pi}{4} = \boxed{\frac{\pi}{4}}.

Summary of the trick:

The key move is replacing 1x\frac{1}{x} by โˆซ0โˆžeโˆ’xtโ€‰dt\int_0^\infty e^{-xt}\,dt, which promotes the oscillatory integral to a one-parameter family of pure exponential integrals, each of which is elementary via โˆซ0โˆžeโˆ’axsinโกxโ€‰dx=1a2+1\int_0^\infty e^{-ax}\sin x\,dx = \frac{1}{a^2+1}. The final integral over the parameter is just an arctangent.